If Donbass doesn’t have a right to self-determination, by which standard does Ukraine have one? How are they allowed to be a state? I thought they were a part of the Russian empire combined with Galicia, named Ukraine in the Soviet Union, where they added Donbass and Crimea to make it a more legitimate-looking “soviet republic”. If they are allowed to be internationally recognized as a state after the constitutional collapse of the Soviet Union, how are Crimea and Donbass not allowed to be internationally recognized as states after the constitutional collapse of Ukraine in 2014?
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This is way beyond crazy.
https://www.rt.com/news/550311-canada-troops-russia-sanctions-ukraine/?utm_source=rss&utm_medium=rss&utm_campaign=RSS
Canada and our allies will defend democracy. We are taking these actions today to stand against authoritarianism,” Trudeau said. “The people of Ukraine, like all people, must be free to determine their own future.
Says the guy who just crushed democracy in it’s own country and kept “emergency powers” literally instantiating authoritarianism.
I think we’re dealing with the effects of political mislabeling, because there’s no way this guy and his mates are the “liberal left”. They are definitely authoritarian and not liberal, because they resort to state decree as a solution to every problem, and there’s another word that describes people who resort to the state as the solution to every problem. Fascist. They are fascist authoritarians, and as for them being the “left”, Hitler was also a socialist who admired Stalin, so I’d say that he was also mislabeled as being on the political right wing, and I would say it was done by the communist party.